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CISI International Certificate in Wealth & Investment Management Sample Questions (Q156-Q161):
NEW QUESTION # 156
Why would a government's expansionary fiscal policy lead to a larger budget deficit?
- A. Interest rates fall faster than usual
- B. Government spending is funded through borrowing
- C. Private sector spending drops rapidly
- D. Less money is collected in taxes
Answer: B
Explanation:
Expansionary fiscal policy involves increased government spending and/or tax cuts to stimulate economic growth.
* Why is Option D Correct?
* If the government spends more than it collects in taxes, it must borrow money, increasing the budget deficit.
* Governments issue bonds to finance the deficit.
* Why Not Other Options?
* A (Less tax revenue) # While tax cuts may reduce revenue, borrowing is the main reason for a budget deficit.
* B (Falling interest rates) # Interest rates are monetary policy, not fiscal policy.
* C (Drop in private spending) # Expansionary policy aims to increase private spending, not reduce it.
# Reference: UK Office for Budget Responsibility (OBR), CISI Wealth & Investment Management.
NEW QUESTION # 157
Which one of the following would cause a shift to the right in aggregate demand?
- A. An increase in expected inflation
- B. A decrease in expected inflation
- C. A decrease in consumer confidence
- D. Depreciation of the pound against other currencies
Answer: D
Explanation:
* Factors Shifting Aggregate Demand (AD) Rightward:
* Depreciation of the pound makes UK exports cheaper and imports more expensive, increasing net exports.
* Higher net exports increase aggregate demand, shifting the curve to the right.
* Elimination of Other Options:
* A: Lower consumer confidence decreases consumption, shifting AD leftward.
* B: Increased expected inflation may reduce real spending.
* D: Lower expected inflation discourages spending.
References:
* ICWIM Module 1: Macroeconomic factors influencing aggregate demand.
NEW QUESTION # 158
Which of the following underlies the pillars of risk tolerance?
- A. Psychological traits
- B. Sociological traits
- C. Experience
- D. Education
Answer: A
Explanation:
* Risk Tolerance Defined
* Risk tolerance is the degree of variability in investment returns that an investor is willing to withstand.
* Pillars of Risk Tolerance
* Psychological Traits: Key determinants of how much risk an individual can emotionally handle.
* Includes traits like optimism, pessimism, and loss aversion.
* Other Factors (Secondary): Experience, education, and financial goals play roles, but they do not directly "underlie" the core risk tolerance.
* Example
* Two investors with identical knowledge and experience may have different risk tolerances due to differing psychological profiles.
* ICWIM Study Guide, Chapter on Risk Profiling: Highlights psychological traits as the foundation of risk tolerance.
* Behavioral Finance Theory: Psychological biases and emotional traits shape risk appetite.
ReferencesThus, the correct answer isA. Psychological traits.
NEW QUESTION # 159
For what reason is holding bearer shares potentially disadvantageous?
- A. The loss of the certificate might equal loss of the person's investment
- B. They are more difficult to value
- C. Because it is not possible to sell part of the holding
- D. Investors prefer not being publicly named on a share register
Answer: A
Explanation:
Bearer shares are physical certificates that grant ownership, and the rights to those shares are with the bearer.
If the certificate is lost or stolen, the investment could effectively be unrecoverable since ownership cannot be traced back to the investor.
* Not being publicly named (A): This is an advantage of bearer shares, not a disadvantage.
* Difficulty in valuation (C): Bearer shares' value is similar to registered shares based on market conditions.
* Impossible to sell part (D): Fractional transactions can still occur with bearer shares.
References:
* International Certificate in Wealth & Investment Management: Risks associated with different forms of equity ownership.
* Legal frameworks around bearer shares and their potential misuse in financial systems.
NEW QUESTION # 160
An advisor is reviewing a client's portfolio which has a time horizon of 15 years and is made up primarily of bonds and cash but with some exposure to equities and other higher-risk investments. It is reasonable to believe that the client's risk appetite is:
- A. Low-Mid Risk
- B. Low Risk
- C. Mid-High Risk
- D. Mid Risk
Answer: A
Explanation:
* Risk Appetite and Portfolio Composition
* A portfolio primarily of bonds and cash indicates a conservative approach, but the inclusion of equities and higher-risk investments suggests some tolerance for risk.
* A 15-year time horizon allows for a balanced approach, mitigating risks associated with equities over time.
* Why the Answer is B
* The mix of low-risk (bonds, cash) and some high-risk exposure (equities) aligns withLow-Mid Risk.
* Why Other Options are Incorrect
* A. Low Risk: Overlooks the equity and higher-risk components.
* C. Mid Risk / D. Mid-High Risk: Overestimate the risk level due to the dominance of bonds and cash.
* ICWIM Study Guide, Chapter on Risk Profiling: Explains portfolio risk classification.
References
NEW QUESTION # 161
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